- Coreano
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Inglês (EUA)
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Guarani
Is there any difference in meaning between "He had nothing on himself to pay her with" and " He had nothing on him to pay her with " ?
- Inglês (EUA)
it means pretty much the same thing. both imply that something is owed (money) just a bit different in saying but same meaning. the first phrase sounds a bit unnatural so I would use the second if it was a choice.
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- Coreano
Why do you thjink the first one sounds a bit unnatural?
Is this because there is no need to add "-self" because we know "him" is "he" ?
- Inglês (EUA)
@leopard7 yes, himself is already known and implied therefore "himself" is not needed.
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- Coreano
Do native speakers add "-self" when it's not very obvious who is being indicated by using the words "him, her, them, it"?
- Inglês (EUA)
@leopard7 yes, usually it is used to refer to them being affected by their own action.
example1:
"he could not pay her, because he himself had no money." it could be used in this way to add meaning to the subject.
example2:
"he hurt himself when he tripped"
this way it explains that he has been affected by his own decision or action.
"self" phrases also help to connect actions and consequences
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