Questions about example sentences with, and the definition and usage of "None"

A: @pizza- Because it is followed by a preposition (of). If there’s a preposition, you should use an objective pronoun after it

✕ none of we
✓ none of us

✕ none of they
✓ none of them

A: We would not have been able to accomplish (something) without you and your help.

A: Sarah: "You're kind of a bad driver, no offense"
John: "None taken"

No offense taken.

John is saying that he is not offended by Sarah's comment. He doesn't care, the comment did not hurt his feelings.

A: None of this would've happened if you'd just stuck around.
如果你就待在这里这个问题就不会发生。

A: @Ri-na "None of It" just means "none".

So, nothing is natural.

A: Yes, it means none of the things really worked out (was successful) - when we talk about how things pan out (or don’t pan out), we are talking about the end result.

A: It's none of my business, but... her father has a situation at work.

A: 1. None of you are tall (speaking of people meaning 0 of them are tall)

2.none of this is fun
(Meaning 0 is fun or nothing is fun)

3.how much money do you have?
I have none.
(Meaning you dont have any)

A: None of the rooms are available.
I wanted a cookie but there are none left.
That doctor is second to none.
He's none the worse for his drinking.

A: There are some cases where you can begin a statement with "why" even when you are not asking a question, but it is very rare and I don't think these cases are technically "noun clauses"

Example:
A: "Let's go to the park"
B: "Why, that is a splendid idea!"
(the "why" is completely unnecessary but it is acceptable)

A: No one is in indefinite pronoun that refers to a singular thing
Ex. "There was no one at the party."
Ex. "No one wants to eat the cake."

None is a plural indefinite pronoun used when referring to a group of things
Ex. "None of the students studied for their test."
Ex. "None of the apples were sweet."

I don't know how much sense this makes, I am sorry!

A: You can use “neither” only where there are two options to choose from.
You can use “none” where there are three or more options.

Q - Here are two apples. Which do you prefer?
A - Neither!

Q - There are three days this week when I could meet up with you, being Monday, Thursday or Saturday. Which are you available for?
A - None, because I’m working abroad all week and am not home till Sunday.

A: grammar books will tell you to put the preposition before the relative pronoun. This is what you should do in formal writing.

However, very few people do that when they speak. When you speak feel free to put the preposition at the end of the relative clause.

In this case, the first sentence has better style and is easier to read.

A: If someone is asking you for permission you can tell them yes or no. You could not use the word "none".

If someone is asking you how many apples are left you could tell them there are no apples left.

If you don't want to say the word "apples" in your response to them you could say "there are none left". You could not use the word "no". "There are no left" is grammatically incorrect.

A: I think we often use these interchangeably. But only the second one is grammatically correct. The plural form of "is" should be used with a plural noun.

No one is coming to the party. None of them are coming to the party.

A: We say:
None of us wants to.....

You can say if you wish - None of us want to.....
but this sounds very formal
and you are speaking in a very informal way
so I wouldn’t say this - but you can.

A: In this situation, "bits" is food and "fancy" is expensive or decorative

"None of these...for me" means he does not want what is offered

"None of these fancy bits for me" Means he doesn't want to have these expensive and decorative foods.

A: Check the question to view the answer

A: "None" should be singular, but it's also very common for people to use it as plural.

In phrases like "none of us" or "none of the books", people instinctively use plural verbs ("have" and "are") since there are those plural subjects ("us" and "books"). However, "none" is a singular verb and it really should be used with singular verbs.

To answer your question, the correct ones are:
- None of them knows me
- None of us has been there
- None of the books is mine

If you use plural with "none", it's not completely wrong because people still debate this.

A: no one shall pass would make more sense but none shall pass would still be understood

A: or you could say "none of us will go outside."

A: Actually, "none" can be associated with both plural and singular. The difference is that if you're using "none" to refer to "not one" "no one" "no part" then it is singular (is/was) but if you're using "none" to refer to "nothing" "not any" then it can be used as a plural.

A: None of my family members like football.
Nobody/No one in my family likes football.

A: well.... it sounds natural, but I have never heard that... Usually i hear the phrase coupled with the words "Bull S***" "S***" "Crap" etc....
Though if it is referring someone retorting to someone trying to get into someone's business then beeswax is usually replaced with business.